Their are court cases where a man as beaten his pregnant wife, and she ended up losing the baby. The man then was charged with ******. Why would he be convicted of ******, if he hadn't ****ed (as you put it) a baby?
K4K, you asked, and here it is.
From protection to punishment
At least 38 of the 50 states across America have introduced fetal homicide laws that were intended to protect pregnant women and their unborn *****ren from violent attacks by third parties – usually abusive male partners – but are increasingly being turned by renegade prosecutors against the women themselves.
South Carolina was one of the first states to introduce such a foetal homicide law. National Advocates for Pregnant Women has found only one case of a South Carolina man who assaulted a pregnant woman having been charged under its terms, and his conviction was eventually overturned. Yet the group estimates there have been up to 300 women arrested for their actions during pregnancy.
In other states laws designed to protect *****ren against the damaging effects of drugs have similarly been twisted to punish *****bearers
Notice the law was written as "intended to protect their unborn *****ren!
http://www.guardian.co.uk/world/2011/jun/24/america-pregnant-women-******-charges
Do you even read the shit you post?!?!
There was NO CONVICTION of ******!!! LOL!!!
Charged and convicted are two DIFFERENT things!!!
Stupid fuck.
I have to go to confession now.
Be back later.