Jagger69
Three lullabies in an ancient tongue
Hot off the press....
http://news.yahoo.com/s/ap/20090421/ap_on_go_pr_wh/us_obama_interrogation_memos
http://news.yahoo.com/s/ap/20090421/ap_on_go_pr_wh/us_obama_interrogation_memos
Why is the us held to a higher standard?
hmm I guess nobody had any better ideas.
strange how on april 19 obama and Rahm Emanuel and their spokesperson
all said the administration has no intention of seeking prosecution of cia members.
then on april 21 he says he will seek prosecution.
Its just a smokescreen to divert attention from what he and the democrats are really doing.
Are ya gonna fall for it?
Its just a smokescreen to divert attention from what he and the democrats are really doing.
Are ya gonna fall for it?
i dont have time to search for video or transcripts.
he rahm and their spokesperson all said there will be no prosecutions on april 19.
2 days later he changed his tune.
if i'm wrong, then why is olbermann so pissed?
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=kN82aPgI1cg
And bodies, to think i just gave you rep for another post.
what am i falling for?
yes mega that is from april 21st.
but he , rahm and gibbs said very different on the 19th.
olberman in the video i posted was pissed about the comment from the 19th.
the show was probably from the 20th.
he flip flopped, many politicians do that alot.
NO BIG DEAL!!!!
What about the people doing it before the orders, or even worse!Sorry, you just need to listen to what's actually been said. Obama has made it clear that people who were following orders ("cia members") will not (and should not) be prosecuted, but he's leaving the door open to prosecuting those who issued the orders. He is going to leave it up to the AG to investigate it.
What about the people doing it before the orders, or even worse!
I think people forget that a major reason this "rules" (what you call "orders") came out is because there were many, alleged cases of torture before these "rules" came out from the DoJ.
People keep trying to make this simplistic, when the times, people and realities were far, far more complex. The main reason why these "rules" came out was because the Executive Branch became aware of things going on.
Those aren't just "rumors." They are the repeatedly quoted reason why the DoJ was consulted in the first place, because the DoJ was told to come up with such "rules" after the Executive Branch became aware of various methods of alleged torture actually going on. That's not spin, and it's even in some of the released documentation.Hmm, before I even entertain the suggestion there were those doing it before it was authorized
The question has always been, "Who's law?" and "Under what jurisdictions and/or agreements?"(in which case that's STILL breaking the law and the previous justice department should have intervened...not try and legalize it).
When are you going to realize that the DoJ "rules" were not "instructions" but "limitations" on what was allowed? Geez, are people really that thick? So politically aligned?Do you have ANY evidence this was occurring before agents were instructed to employ it??
You're kidding me, right?Honestly, this sounds like the latest strategy to spin the situation.
I never said they weren't. But you keep missing the greater realities of this. Everyone does.What you and those who are going to be trumpeting this theme in the coming days don't get is you can't make illegal acts legal by fiat. If someone waterboarded and if they were instructed to do so....those who instructed them to do so...are in legal jeopardy.
after the Executive Branch became aware of various methods of alleged torture actually going on.
Give me a break. You do understand that the DoJ "rules" came out well after 9/11, correct?"became aware"?? Okay, we'll play along with that.
When it wasn't disclosed? The question is, where did the "disclosure" stop? You do understand that this isn't clear, cut'n dry, correct? That's the question we'll never get an answer to.Beyond everything you've said it's as simple as this, when has the US EVER sanctioned the actions that constituted water boarding when it was discovered?
Just a few months ago, a lot of people on this board were saying, "oh, it's X and Y" and going off on all sorts of things, claim it was worse than sleep deprivation and other things like water boarding. But in the end, this is all they could find the last administration knew of, as outlined in this DoJ "rules." That's sad, backtracking and not atypical.We know it's torture and it's only debatable in the minds of the intellectually dishonest IMO.
Assume there are none. That seems to work best with yourself.But cite a case in which the US government discovered it being administered by agents of our government and it wasn't punished prior to Bush.
Just like W. is the first President to suspend Habeas Corpus (let alone we're talking about nearlly all found on a field of battle, and not civilian criminals, and not Americans let alone "stateless citizens"). So many people talk about "firsts" with W., and I've made the mistake of even bothering trying to correct them, like yourself. You want "political capital" on W., and if it touches anyone else -- let alone Democrats -- you'll ignore it.
I'm not just talking the civil war, let alone the US Constitution addressed such back then just as much as today. Just because the Supreme Court re-affirmed that reality doesn't mean there was not precedence.In everything you cite...you seem to forget one simple problem call "precedence".
There was no precedence established for what is to happen in cases of civil war and the potential suspension of habeas corpus.
So tell me how could JFK legally execute another, foreign leader?Precedence has already been established in the case of actions that constitute water boarding.
Our whole system of jurisprudence would not function if we couldn't establish some consistency with respect to what actions constituted breaches of law.
So tell me how could JFK legally execute another, foreign leader?
This is what I'm talking about.